Happy New Year J & T 🙂
Thank you for all the knowledge 🙂
I’m wondering how this question can be solved by Binomial probability method.
Question says fair chance of winning at least one match. So equation is
1 – nC0(5/6)^n > 1/2 (all – winning none)
But this equation doesn’t seem to be correct? Guide please.
It is the same as what I have done. I have just solved for (5/6)^n < 1/2, which of course means that 1 – (5/6)^n would be greater than 1/2…
Got it! Thanks! 🙂
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